A claim sometimes made by those wishing to use instrumental music is that the book of Psalms is part of the New Testament rather than the Old. Because Psalms is in the New Testament, they argue, it authorizes the New Testament church to use instruments in its worship. This claim must be examined in light of Scripture.

David, the author of the majority of the Psalms, lived during the time of the Old Law, around 950 BC. Are his writings, which were almost a millennium before the birth of Christ, part of the Law of Christ?

In the Psalms, David encouraged worship according to the Mosaic Law. Consider these passages:

"But as for me, I will come into Your house in the multitude of Your mercy; in fear of You I will worship toward Your holy temple"(5:7, emphasis mine).

"Sing aloud to God our strength; make a joyful shout to the God of Jacob. Raise a song and strike the timbrel, the pleasant harp with the lute. Blow the trumpet at the time of the New Moon, at the full moon, on our solemn feast day. For this is a statute for Israel, a law of the God of Jacob"(81:1-4, emphasis mine).
-One must admit, after reading this passage, that worship with instruments is related to the Mosaic feasts and worship. An attempt to relate it outside the Law of Moses is without warrant.

"The Lord reigns; let the peoples tremble! He dwells between the cherubim; let the earth be moved!…Exalt the Lord our God, and worship at His holy hill; for the Lord our God is holy"(99:1, 9, emphasis mine).

"Let us go into His tabernacle; let us worship at His footstool. Arise, O Lord, to Your resting place, You and the ark of Your strength. Let Your priests be clothed with righteousness, and let Your saints shout for joy"(132:7-9).

The Psalms clearly encourage worship according to the Mosaic pattern. How, then, could we say that they are instructions for Christ's church? Isn't it clear that if authority for instrumental music in the church is in Psalms, that authority is also there for priests, temples, and keeping feasts? These shadows of the true covenant are annulled in Christ (Heb 7:18).

-Peter, after quoting Psalms, refers to David as "a prophet"(Acts 2:30). He prophesied of the Christ's coming and His resurrection. What do we do with the Old Testament prophets? Are they part of the Old Law or do we accept them as part of the New? . If we were to accept all prophets as part of the New Law, the number of books in the New Testament would increase dramatically. Genesis (12:3) and Deuteronomy (18:18), for example, would no longer be part of the Old Testament, but the New. In short, if we accept Psalms as part of the New Testament, why would we disqualify any book from being part of the Law of Christ? And who gets to decide what goes where? Isn't it much simpler to listen to Christ and His apostles? Rather than prophets, God speaks to us today through His Son (Heb 1:1-2).

-After quoting Psalms in v. 3, Paul tells us
"For whatever things were written before were written for our learning, that we through the patience and comfort of the Scriptures might have hope"(Rom 15:4).
This is the proper, scriptural way to view Psalms and the rest of the Old Testament canon-it was written for our learning. It is not our law, but it encourages us as we try to live for God (1 Cor 10:6, 11). To look back to Psalms for our law is foolish and dangerous.

-Further, inspired New Testament writers are very clear in discussing the dangers of going back to follow the Old Testament. Hebrews, Galatians, and Romans treat the subject in great detail. The Hebrew writer says it is annulled (7:18) and "obsolete"(8:13). Paul tells the Galatians it is a "tutor to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But after faith is come, we are no longer under a tutor"(Gal 3:24-25). The message is very simple: We now can be saved and must be saved outside the Law of Moses!

Let us cling to Christ and His word for all the authority we need in spiritual matters.___Jacob Hudgins